Showing posts with label First Year. Show all posts
Showing posts with label First Year. Show all posts

Monday, 14 January 2013

Anna University,Chennai 1st Semester 2012 Batch Updates | January 2013 Timetable | First Semester Syllabus,Question Bank,Question Paper,Subject Notes


Anna University,Chennai 1st Semester BE/BTECH 2012-2016 Batch Updates 
(Anna University,Chennai)

-->January 2013 Timetable 
-->First Semester Syllabus
-->First Semester Question Bank
-->First Semester Question Paper
-->First Semester Subject Notes 

All In One Info. For First year Students who admitted in the Year 2012, Common To all Colleges in Tamilnadu



Latest NewsAnna University,Chennai First Semester syllabus Click Here

Latest NewsAnna University,Chennai 1st Semester January 2013 Timetable Click here 

Anna University,Chennai 1st Semester Subject Notes Click here

Anna University,Chennai 1st Semester Question Bank Click here




Important Questions In GE2022 Total Quality Management For Anna University, Chennai Nov/Dec 2012 Examinations


  GE2022 Total Quality Management For Anna University, Chennai Nov/Dec 2012 Examinations


Anna University, Chennai Nov/Dec 2012 Examinations
  Important Questions
GE2022 Total Quality Management 
Unit I-V
 
1.     Describe the six basic concepts of TQM and the various dimensions of quality
2.     Discuss the Deming’s philosophy for TQM
3.     Explain in detail about 14 points of Deming philosophy
4.     Briefly explain quality planning with respect to Juran Triology
5.     Discuss about Maslow’s need hierarchy theory & Herzberg’s two factor theory for motivation.
6.     Discuss about the supplier partnership procedures
7.      What are the different ways of receiving customer feedback? How are the feedback used?
8.     Explain the different approaches towards Continuous Process Improvement
9.     Explain Seven new Management tools in detail
10.Explain the Benchmarking process in detail
11. Explain about the new seven tools of quality and its application in detail
12.Explain in detail about six sigma
13. Discuss FMEA with objectives, process, outcome and benefits.
14.Explain the concept of Taguchi's quality loss function in detail. Give an example
15. Discuss in detail about  cost of quality 
16.Explain about quality system auditing?
17. Explain about the philosophy and the requirements of ISO 9000 : 2000
18.Discuss ISO 14000 requirements and its benefits in detail
19.Discuss the implementation of TQM with a case study


Saturday, 5 January 2013

CY2111 Engineering Chemistry I - B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, MAY/JUNE 2010 Regulations 2008 First Semester Common to all branches (except Marine Engg)

B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, MAY/JUNE 2010
Regulations 2008
First Semester
Common to all branches (except Marine Engg)
CY2111 Engineering Chemistry I
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 Marks

CY2111 Engineering Chemistry I

Click Here To Download The Question Paper 




OTHER LINKS

PH2111 - Physics I (2010 Question Paper Nov/Dec)

PH2111 - Physics 1 (2011 Nov/Dec Question Paper) 


MA2111 - Maths I (2010 Nov/Dec Question Paper)   


GE2111 - EG (2010 Nov/Dec Question Paper)



HS 2111 — TECHNICAL ENGLISH — I B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, MAY/JUNE 2009. First Semester

B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, MAY/JUNE 2009.
First Semester
Civil Engineering
HS 2111 — TECHNICAL ENGLISH — I
(Common to all branches except Marine Engineering)
(Regulation 2008)
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
Answer ALL questions.
PART A — (10 × 2 = 20 marks)
1. Match the words in Column A with their meanings in Column B. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
A B
repository starting point
jeopardy confined within narrow limits
fission place where things are stored
cramped division of the atom
danger
2. Punctuate the following. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
an essay is a piece of writing several paragraphs long written
on one topic the aim of the essay should be deduced strictly
from the wording of the title or question and needs to be defined


3. Complete the following table with appropriate forms of the words given.
(8 × 4
1 = 2)
Noun Verb Adjective
—————— Prescribe ——————
Globalization —————— ——————
—————— Repeat ——————
—————— —————— economical
4. Complete the following ‘If’ conditionals with suitable effects. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
(a) If the roads of the city are widened ——————
(b) If I had not worn a helmet that day ——————
(c) If he were kinder ——————
(d) If I had a million dollars ——————
5. Give the expansions of the following compound nouns. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
(a) Mobile banking
(b) Data transfer
(c) Business Administration
(d) Communication system.
6. Rewrite the following sentences in the passive voice. (2 × 1 = 2)
(a) The library will acquire a new stock of books this month.
(b) Someone broke into the house last night and stole jewels worth Rs. One
lakh.
7. Edit the following passage. (8 × 4
1 = 2)
Making paper involve reducing a plant to its fibres, and then aligned them and
coating a fibres with materials such of glues, pigments and mineral fillers the
first steps on the process is obtaining the raw material.
8. Fill in the blanks in the given sentences with the comparative forms of the
adjectives given in brackets. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
(a) Oil is —————— (light) than water. That is why oil floats on water.
(b) The University campus was —————— (far) away from the station
than I was given to believe.
(c) The Afternoon session of the workshop was definitely ——————
(interesting) than the morning session.
(d) The weapons used in the Second World War were ——————
(destructive) than those used ever before in history.


9. Write one sentence definitions of the following. (2 × 1 = 2)
(a) Bluetooth
(b) Abacus.
10. Fill in the blanks in the given sentences with the correct form of the verb,
choosing the right option from the choices given in brackets. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
(a) A Commission —————— (was/has been) appointed to investigate the
massacre of the innocent villagers two days after the incident.
(b) This year the University —————— (introduced/has introduced) the
new online system of examination.
(c) The machine —————— (was/has been) purchased in 1973 and
—————— (is/has been) functioning for the past 35 years with the
same efficiency.
PART B — (5 × 16 = 80 marks)
11. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.
When the first white men arrived in Samoa, they found blind men, who could
see well enough to describe things in detail just by holding their hands over
objects. In France just after the First World War, Jules Romain tested
hundreds of blind people and found a few who could tell the difference between
light and dark. He narrowed their photosensitivity down to areas on the nose
or in the fingertips. In Italy the neurologist Cesare Lombroso discovered a
blind girl who could ‘see’ with the tip of her nose and the lobe of her left ear.
When a bright light was shone unexpectedly on her, she winced. In 1956 a
blind schoolboy in Scotland was taught to differentiate between coloured lights
and learned to pick out bright objects several feet away. In 1960 a medical
board examined a girl in Virginia and found that, even with thick bandages
over her eyes, she was able to distinguish different colours and read short
sections of large print. The phenomenon is obviously not new, but it has
reached new peaks of sensitivity in a young woman from a mountain village in
the Urals. 
Rosa Kuleshova can see with her fingers. She is not blind, but because she
grew up in a family of blind people, she learned to read Braille to help them
and then went onto teach herself to do other things with her hands. In 1962
her physician took her to Moscow, where she was examined by the Soviet
Academy of Science, and emerged a celebrity, certified as genuine. The
neurologist Shaefer made an intensive study with her and found that, securely
blindfolded with only her hands stuck through a screen, she could differentiate
among three primary colours. To test the possibility that the cards reflected
heat differently, he heated some and cooled others without affecting her
response to them, He also found that she could read newsprint and sheet music
under glass, so texture was giving her no clues. Tested by the psychologist
Novomeisky, she was able to identify the colour and shape of patches of light
projected on her palm or on to a screen. In rigidly controlled tests, with a
blindfold and a screen and a piece of card around her neck so wide that she
could not see round it, Rosa read the small print in a newspaper with her
elbow. And, in the most convincing demonstration of all, she repeated these
things with someone standing behind her pressing hard on her eyeballs.
Nobody can cheat under this pressure ; it is even difficult to see clearly for
minutes after it is released.
(a) Complete the following statements choosing from one of the given
alternatives. (4 × 1 = 4)
(i) The first white men to visit Samoa found men who
(1) were not entirely blind
(2) described things by touching them
(3) could see with their hands
(4) could see when they held hands
(ii) What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
(1) Very few people have the sensitivity of the blind
(2) Blind people can manage to see things, but only vaguely
(3) The eyes are not the only way of seeing
(4) It is possible to localise photosensitive areas of the body.
(iii) Why did Shaefer put the paper under glass?
(1) To make things as difficult as possible
(2) To stop the reflection of hear
(3) To prevent Rosa from feeling the print
(4) To stop her from cheating.


(iv) What was the most difficult test of her ability?
(1) To read through glass, blindfolded
(2) To identify the colour and shape of light on a screen while
securely blindfolded
(3) To carry out tasks with someone pressing on her eyeballs
(4) To work from behind a screen, blindfolded and with a card
round her neck.
(b) State whether the following statements are true or false. (8 × 1 = 8)
(i) The men in Samoa were not quite blind.
(ii) Jules Romain found a lot of blind people who could see with their
noses and ears.
(iii) The Italian girl enjoyed it when the light was shone on her ear.
(iv) A girl called Virginia could read newsprint even when she was
blindfolded.
(v) Rosa Kuleshova lives on a mountain peak.
(vi) Her family taught her everything about seeing with her fingers.
(vii) Shaefer found that temperature did not affect her ability to
differentiate between colours.
(viii) Her ability to read with her fingers did not depend on the feel of the
print.
(c) Choose the option that best represents the meaning of the word as used
in the passage. (4 × 1 = 4)
(i) distinguish
(1) differentiate
(2) discriminate
(3) revere
(4) standout
(ii) celebrity
(1) rejoice
(2) famous person
(3) commemorate
(4) criminal
(iii) convincing
(1) accepting
(2) disagreeing
(3) persuasive
(4) aggressive


(iv) phenomenon
(1) occurrence
(2) surprise
(3) theory
(4) practice
12. Rewrite the jumbled sentences in sequential order so that they follow one
another in a logical and coherent manner. Choose either set (a) or set (b). (16)
(a) (i) Between 1482 and 1499, he was employed in the service of the
Duke of Milan
(ii) His artistic bent obviously appeared at an early age for when he
was 15 he was apprenticed to the painter Verocchio.
(iii) Leonardo returned to Florence in 1499, where he painted that most
famous painting ‘The Mona Lisa’.
(iv) In 1472 he was accepted in the Painters’ Guild in Florence where he
remained until 1481.
(v) Leonardo da Vinci was born in 1452 in Vinci, a small village in
Tuscany.
(vi) His artistic achievements in Milan reached their peak with the
mural ‘The Last Supper’ completed in 1497.
(vii) He was the illegitimate son of a Florentine lawyer and property
owner.
(viii) After a few years again in Milan and then in Rome he settled in
France in 1516, at Cloux near Amboise where he died three years
later.
Or
(b) (i) Yet the difficulties of working in this extremely cold region will be
great, and the costs may be so high that no company will undertake
the work.
(ii) There are four main areas of the world where deposits of oil appear.
(iii) If progress in using atomic power to drive machines is fast enough,
it is possible that oil-driven engines may give place to the new kind
of engine.
(iv) Another is the area between North and South America, and the
third, between Asia and Australia, includes the islands of Sumatra,
Borneo and Java.
(v) In that case, the demand for oil will fall, the oil flelds will gradually
disappear and the deposits at the North Pole may rest where they
are forever.


(vi) The first is that of the Middle East, and includes the regions near
the Caspian Sea, the Black Sea, the Red Sea and the Persian Gulf
(vii) When all the present oil-fields are exhausted, it is possible that this
cold region may become the scene of oil activity.
(viii) The fourth area is the part near the North Pole.
13. (a) Write a set of eight recommendations for students to make optimal use of
the library facilities in the college. (16)
Or
(b) Write a set of eight recommendations for the maintenance of the
electrical equipment in your department. (16)
14. (a) Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper about the miseries caused by
the recent power cuts in your area. (16)
Or
(b) As the President of the Students’ Union, write a letter to the Principal of
your college inviting him to the inauguration of the Enviro Club. Give
details of the activities of the club and of the timing and venue of the
function organized. (16)
15. Write two paragraphs of 150 words each (total 300 words) on any one of the
following topics. (16)
(a) The evolution of Communication technology from ancient to modem
times.
Or
(b) The ways to conserve and optimize the use of available fossil fuels.




OTHER LINKS

PH2111 - Physics I (2010 Question Paper Nov/Dec)

PH2111 - Physics 1 (2011 Nov/Dec Question Paper) 


MA2111 - Maths I (2010 Nov/Dec Question Paper)   


GE2111 - EG (2010 Nov/Dec Question Paper)

PH2111 - Physics 1 (2010 May/June Question Paper) 

 

PH2111 Engineering Physics I - B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, MAY/JUNE 2010 Regulations 2008 First Semester Common to all branches

B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, MAY/JUNE 2010
Regulations 2008
First Semester
Common to all branches
PH2111 Engineering Physics I
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL Questions
Part A - (10 x 2 = 20 Marks)
1. Mention any two properties of ultrasonic waves.
2. What i s the principle of pulse echo system?
3. What are the conditions needed for laser action?
4. What is holography?.
5. De¯ne acceptance angle of a ¯bre.
6. Give the applications of the ¯bre optical system.
7. Calculate de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with velocity 107 m/s.
8. Explain degenerate and non-degenerate states.
9. Calculate the ¯rst and second nearest neighbor distances in the body centered cubic unit
cell of sodium, which has lattice constant of 4:3 £ 10¡10 m.
10. What is meant by Frenkel imperfection?
Part B - (5 x 16 = 80 Marks)
11. (a) (i) What are magnetostriction and piezoelectric e®ect? (4)
(ii) Write down the complete experimental procedure with a neat circuit diagram of
producing ultrasonic waves by piezoelectric e®ect. (12)
OR
11. (b) (i) What is an acoustic grating? How is it used in determining the velocity of
ultrasound?
(2 + 6)
(ii) Explain the process of non-destructive testing of materials using ultrasonic waves
by pulse-echo method. (8)
12. (a) (i) Derive the relation between the probabilities of spontaneous emission and stimu-
lated emission in terms of Einstein's coe±cients. (8)
(ii) Explain the following pumping mechanisms.
(1) optical and
(2) electric discharge. (8)
OR
12. (b) (i) With a neat sketch, explain the construction, principle and working of CO2 laser.
(14)
(ii) Mention four applications of lasers in materials processing.
(2)
13. (a) (i) Explain the basic structure of an optical ¯bre and discuss the principle of trans-
mission of light through optical ¯bres. (5)
(ii) Derive an expression for numerical aperture. (5)
(iii) Brie°y discuss a technique of optical ¯bre drawing. (6)
OR
13. (b) (i) With a neat diagram, give an account on displacement sensors. (8)
(ii) Give an elaborate account on losses in optical ¯bres. (8)
14. (a) (i) What is Compton e®ect? Derive an expression for the change in wavelength
su®ered by an X-ray photon, when it collides with an electron. (2 + 12)
(ii) An electron at rest is accelerated through a potential of 2 kV. Calculate the de
Broglie wavelength of matter wave associated with it. (2)
OR
14. (b) (i) Solve the Schrodinger's wave equation for a free particle of mass m moving within
a one dimensional potential box of width L to obtain eigenvalues of energy and
eigenfunctions.
(11)
(ii) Find the eigenvalues of energies and eigenfunctions of an electron moving in a
one dimensional potential box of in¯nite height and 1 ºA of width. Given that m
= 9.11 £10¡31 kg and h = 6.63 £10¡34 J. (5)
15. (a) (i) What are Miller indices? Mention the steps involved to determine the Miller
indices with example. (2 + 4)
(ii) The material zinc has HCP structure. If the radius of the atom is
1
4
th of the
diagonal of hexagon, calculate the height of the unit cell in terms of atomic
radius.
(2)


(iii) Show that the packing factor for HCP i s 74% . (8)
OR
15. (b) (i) What i s Burger vector? (2)
(ii) Draw Burger circuit indicating Burger vector for edge dislocation and screw dis-
location. (4+4)
(iii) Certain defects in crystals improve the properties of crystals. Explain. (6)


OTHER LINKS

PH2111 - Physics I (2010 Question Paper Nov/Dec)

PH2111 - Physics 1 (2011 Nov/Dec Question Paper) 


MA2111 - Maths I (2010 Nov/Dec Question Paper)   


GE2111 - EG (2010 Nov/Dec Question Paper)

GE2111 - EG (ENGINEERING GRAPHICS) Common to All B.E./B.Tech. First Semester B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER/DECEMBER 2011

B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER/DECEMBER 2011
Common to All B.E./B.Tech.
First Semester
185101 — ENGINEERING GRAPHICS
(REGULATION 2010)
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
Answer ALL questions.
(5 X20 = 100 marks)
1. (a) Construct an ellipse when the distance of its focus from its directrix is equal to 50 mm and the eccentricity is 2/3. Also draw a tangent and a normal to the ellipse.
Or
(b) Make free hand sketches of the front, top and left side view of the object
shown in Fib. Q 1(b).


Fib. Q 1(b)
2. (a) A Line AB has its end A 15 mm above H.P and 20 mm in front of V.P. The end B is 60 mm above H.P. and the line is inclined at 30° to H.P. The distance between the end projectors of the line is 55 mm. Draw the projections and find its inclination with V.P.
Or
(b) A regular hexagonal lamina of 40 mm side is resting on one of its corner on H.P. Its surface is inclined at 45° to H.P. The plan of the diagonal through the corner which is on H.P. makes an angle of 45° with XY. Draw its projections.
3. (a) A hexagonal prism of side of base 25 mm and axis 60 mm rests on a corner of its base in H.P. with the axis of the prism inclined at 40° to H.P. and parallel to V.P. Draw its projections.
Or
(b) A pentagonal pyramid of base edge 25 mm and axis length 60 mm rests on one base side on HP such that the highest base corner is 20 mm above HP. Its axis is parallel to VP. Draw its top and front views.
4. (a) A tetrahedron of 60 mm long edges rests with one of its face on H.P. and an edge is perpendicular to V.P. A section plane perpendicular to V.P cuts the tetrahedron such that the true shape of section is an isosceles triangle of base 50 mm and altitude 36 mm. Draw the front view, sectional top view and the true shape of the section. Also find the inclination of the section plane.
Or
(b) A vertical cylinder of diameter 50 mm and height 80 mm is drilled by a hole of diameter 30 mm such that the axis of the hole is perpendicular toV.P. and parallel to H.P. Draw the lateral surface development of the solid.
5. (a) A hexagonal prism of base edge, 20 mm and height 60 mm rests on the H.P. on its base with two of its rectangular faces parallel to V.P. It is cut by a plane inclined at 30° to H.P cutting the axis of the prism at a height of 45 mm from its base. Draw the isometric view of the truncated prism.
Or
(b) A square prism of 55 mm edge of base and 70 mm height is placed on the ground behind the PP with its axis vertical and one of the edges of the base receding to the left at an angle of 40° to the PP. The nearest vertical edge of the solid is 20 mm behind PP and 25 mm to the left of the observer who is at a distance of 120 mm in front of PP. The height of the observer above the ground is 100 mm. Draw the perspective view of the prism.
———————–––


OTHER LINKS

PH2111 - Physics I (2010 Question Paper Nov/Dec)

PH2111 - Physics 1 (2011 Nov/Dec Question Paper) 


MA2111 - Maths I (2010 Nov/Dec Question Paper) 

MA2111 Mathematics I ANNA UNIVERSITY QUESTION PAPER QUESTION BANK IMPORTANT QUESTIONS 2 MARKS AND 16 MARKS

B.E./B.Tech.Degree Examinations, November/December 2010
Regulations 2008
First Semester
Common to all branches
MA2111 Mathematics I
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL Questions
Part A - (10 x 2 = 20 Marks)
1. If ¡1 i s an eigen value of the matrix A = µ 1 ¡2
¡3 2 ¶, ¯nd the eigen values of A4
using properties.
2. Use Cayley-Hamilton theorem to ¯nd A4 ¡ 8A3 ¡ 12A2 when A = · 5 3
1 3 ¸:
3. Find the centre and radius of the sphere 2(x2 + y2 + z2) + 6x ¡ 6y + 8z + 9 = 0.
4. State the conditions for the equation ax2 +by2 +cz2 +2fyz +2gzx+2hxy +2ux+
2vy + 2wz + d = 0 to represent a cone with vertex at the origin.
5. Find the radius of curvature of y = ex at x = 0.
6. Find the envelope of the family of straight lines y = mx +
1
m
, where m is a
parameter.
7. If u = f(x ¡ y; y ¡ z; z ¡ x), show that
@u
@x
+
@u
@y
+
@u
@z
= 0.
8. If u =
x + y
1 ¡ xy
and v = tan¡1 x + tan¡1 y, ¯nd
@(u; v)
@(x; y)
.
 132  132  132 
9. Evaluate
1 Z0
2 Z0
ex+y dx dy.
10. Evaluate
1 Z0
2 Z0
3 Z0
xyzdzdydx:
Part B - (5 x 16 = 80 Marks)
11. (a) (i) Using Cayley-Hamilton theorem, ¯nd the inverse of the matrix A = 24
¡1 0 3
8 1 7
¡3 0 8
35
.
(8)
(ii) Find the eigen values and eigen vectors of the matrix 24
2 2 1
1 3 1
1 2 2
35
.
(
8
)
OR
11. (b) Reduce the quadratic form
2x2
1 + x2
2 + x2
3 + 2x1x2 ¡ 2x1x3 ¡ 4x2x3
to canonical form by an orthogonal transformation. Also ¯nd the rank, index,
signature and nature of the quadratic form. (16)
12. (a) (i) Find the equation of the sphere having its centre on the plane 4x¡5y¡z =
3 and passing through the circle x2 + y2 + z2 ¡ 2x ¡ 3y + 4z + 8 = 0;
x ¡ 2y + z = 8. (8)
(ii) Find the equation of the right circular cone whose vertex i s the origin,
whose axis i s the line
x
1
=
y
2
=
z
3
and which has semi-vertical angle 30±.
(8)
OR
12. (b) (i) Find the equation of the sphere passing through the circle x2 + y2 + z2 +
x¡3y +2z ¡1 = 0, 2x+5y ¡z +7 = 0 and cuts orthogonally the sphere
x2 + y2 + z2 ¡ 3x + 5y ¡ 7z ¡ 6 = 0. (8)
(ii) Find the equation of the right circular cylinder whose axis is
x ¡ 1
2
=
y ¡ 2
1
=
z ¡ 3
2
and radius 2. (8)


13. (a) (i) Find the equation of the circle of curvature of the curve px + py = pa
at ³a
4
;
a
4´. (8)
(ii) Prove that the radius of curvature of the curve xy2 = a3 ¡x3 at the point
(a, 0) is
3a
2
: (8)
OR
13. (b) (i) Show that the evolute of the hyperbola
x2
a2 ¡
y2
b2 = 1 i s (ax)2=3 ¡(by)2=3 =
(a2 + b2)2=3. (10)
(ii) Find the envelope of
x
a
+
y
b
= 1, where a and b are connected by the
relation a2 + b2 = c2; c being constant. (6)
14. (a) (i) Find the Taylor's series expansion of ex cos y in the neighborhood of the
point ³1;
¼
4 ´ upto third degree terms. (8)
(ii) If u = log(x2 + y2) + tan¡1 ³y
x´, prove that uxx + uyy = 0. (8)
OR
14. (b) (i) Discuss the maxima and minima of the function f(x; y) = x4 +y4 ¡2x2 +
4xy ¡ 2y2. (8)
(ii) Find the Jacobian of y1; y2; y3 with respect to x1; x2; x3 if y1 =
x2x3
x1
; y2 =
x3x1
x2
; y3 =
x1x2
x3
. (8)
15. (a) (i) Evaluate
1 Z0
1 Zx
e¡y
y
dx dy by changing the order of integration. (8)
(ii) Evaluate
1 Z0
1 Z0
e¡(x2+y2) dx dy by converting to polar coordinates. Hence
deduce the value of
1 Z0
e¡x2
dx. (8)
OR
15. (b) (i) Using triple integration, ¯nd the volume of the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 = a2.
(8)
(ii) Find the area bounded by the parabolas y2 = 4 ¡ x and y2 = x by double
integration. (8)






OTHER LINKS

PH2111 - Physics I (2010 Question Paper Nov/Dec)

PH2111 - Physics 1 (2011 Nov/Dec Question Paper) 

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